general practice

A 68-year-old male presents with abdominal distension, obstipation, and vomiting. He has a history of prior abdominal surgery. An upright abdominal X-ray is performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 68-year-old male presents with fatigue and weight loss. The provided image was obtained. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 45-year-old male presents to his GP with a lesion on his nose that has been slowly enlarging over the past six months. He reports no pain, itching, or bleeding. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications. On examination, vital signs are stable. The image shows the appearance of the lesion. Given the clinical presentation and morphology, what is the most appropriate initial step in management?

A 55-year-old male presents to his GP complaining of a swelling in his right groin that has been present for several months. He states it is more noticeable when he is standing or coughing and sometimes causes a dull ache, but it is easily pushed back in when he lies down. He denies any fever, nausea, or acute pain. His vital signs are stable. Physical examination reveals the finding shown in the image. Considering the patient's history and the physical examination finding depicted, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 45-year-old man presents to the general practice clinic with a 3-month history of fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. He has a history of smoking and works as a construction worker. On examination, he has cervical lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. Blood tests reveal anemia and elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH). A chest X-ray shows a mediastinal mass. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 45-year-old man presents with a bulge in his right groin that he noticed a few weeks ago. It's more prominent when he coughs or strains. Examination reveals the finding in the image. He denies pain. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A 35-year-old male presents to his general practitioner complaining of a persistent, asymptomatic lesion on his nose that has been present for approximately 6 months. He denies any trauma to the area. He reports no other skin issues or systemic symptoms. Physical examination reveals the lesion shown. The patient is concerned about cosmetic appearance and potential for malignancy. What is the MOST appropriate initial management step?

A 58-year-old male presents to your GP clinic complaining of a dragging sensation in his right groin, particularly when standing for long periods. He denies any pain, nausea, or vomiting. On examination, you note the finding in the image. Palpation reveals a soft, reducible mass. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 62-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with a six-month history of a painless swelling in his right groin. He reports that the swelling becomes more prominent when he strains or coughs and reduces when he lies down. On examination, a soft, reducible bulge is palpable in the right inguinal region. The bulge is felt to emerge medial to the inferior epigastric vessels. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management, according to current Australian guidelines?

A 30-year-old immigrant presents with chronic cough and night sweats. Sputum is negative for AFB. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 45-year-old woman presents with RUQ pain, fever, and nausea. The image shows the likely cause. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 62-year-old woman presents for routine screening mammography. She has no palpable lumps or skin changes. Her mother was diagnosed with breast cancer at age 68. The provided image is from her mammogram. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 35-year-old presents with colicky abdominal pain and vomiting. An X-ray is performed. What is the MOST likely finding on subsequent CT imaging?

A 68-year-old male presents for routine follow-up. He is asymptomatic. Review the image. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 28-year-old female presents with right lower quadrant pain for 3 days. She denies fever, vomiting, or vaginal discharge. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. The shown CT was performed. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A 62-year-old woman attends her routine mammogram. She has no palpable lumps or skin changes. Her previous mammograms have been normal. The provided image is from the current study. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 72-year-old male presents to the clinic complaining of a painless swelling in his right groin that has been present for several years. He reports that the swelling occasionally increases in size with prolonged standing or heavy lifting, but it usually reduces when he lies down. He denies any acute pain, nausea, vomiting, or changes in bowel habits. His past medical history includes well-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus and a remote appendectomy. On physical examination, his vital signs are within normal limits. Abdominal examination is unremarkable. Examination of the groin reveals the finding shown in the image. The swelling is easily reducible when the patient is supine. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial management strategy for this patient?

A 60-year-old non-smoker has a calculated 5-year cardiovascular disease risk of 12%. Based on current Australian guidelines, what is the most appropriate initial management focus?

A 14-month-old child is presented to the general practitioner by their parents, who are concerned about a noticeable protrusion around the navel. They report this bulge is more prominent when the child cries or strains but easily disappears when the child is relaxed or sleeping. There are no reports of pain, discomfort, changes in bowel habits, or feeding difficulties. The child is meeting all developmental milestones and appears well. On examination, vital signs are stable and within age-appropriate ranges. The abdomen is soft and non-tender, with no distension. The finding illustrated in the accompanying image is observed. Based on this clinical presentation and examination, what is the most appropriate initial management plan?

A 72-year-old male with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents for a routine follow-up. He is asymptomatic. A contrast-enhanced CT abdomen, axial view shown, was performed as part of a screening protocol. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 55-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath on exertion. She has a history of menorrhagia. On examination, she appears pale and has conjunctival pallor. Blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 70 fL, and low serum ferritin. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 52-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with fatigue, increased thirst, and frequent urination over the past three months. She has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, for which she takes lisinopril and atorvastatin. Her BMI is 32 kg/m². On examination, her blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg, and her heart rate is 78 bpm. Laboratory tests reveal a fasting plasma glucose of 8.5 mmol/L and an HbA1c of 7.2%. She is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step for this patient according to Australian guidelines?

A 65-year-old man with a history of COPD presents with fever, productive cough, and shortness of breath for 3 days. On examination, he has crackles in the right lower lung field. A chest X-ray shows a right lower lobe consolidation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 30-year-old recent immigrant from a high-TB prevalence country presents with a persistent cough and night sweats for 2 months. Sputum cultures are negative for acid-fast bacilli. A PET-CT scan was performed, and an image is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 45-year-old farmer presents with a 10-day history of fever, severe retro-orbital headache, and myalgia. He denies cough or dyspnoea. Physical examination is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A 58-year-old man presents with concerns about breast enlargement over the past year. He denies pain or nipple discharge. He takes medication for hypertension. Examination reveals the findings in the image. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial investigation?

A 60-year-old man presents with a reducible right groin bulge, as seen in the image. He reports mild discomfort. What is the most appropriate initial management?

A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 3-day history of fever, sore throat, and difficulty swallowing. She has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. On examination, she has swollen, tender anterior cervical lymph nodes and erythematous tonsils with white exudates. A rapid antigen detection test for group A Streptococcus is positive. What is the most appropriate treatment for her condition?

A 55-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of a long-standing, intermittent swelling in his right groin that becomes more noticeable when he coughs or lifts heavy objects. It is usually painless and he can push it back in. His vital signs are normal. Considering the clinical presentation and the appearance shown, what is the most appropriate initial management?

A 22-year-old lady was wrongly given a B12 prescription for another patient. The error was noticed later at the pharmacy. What is the next step?

A 64-year-old woman presents for a routine health check. She reports intermittent episodes of colicky abdominal pain over the past year, which have since resolved. An abdominal ultrasound, as shown, was performed. Liver function tests are normal. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of persistent cough, night sweats, and weight loss. He has a history of smoking and works as a miner. On examination, he has decreased breath sounds and dullness to percussion over the right upper lobe. A chest X-ray shows a cavitary lesion in the right upper lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 45-year-old Aboriginal man from a remote community presents to the clinic for a routine health check. He has a history of smoking (20 pack-years) and reports drinking alcohol occasionally (3-4 standard drinks per week). He denies any chronic medical conditions. His blood pressure is 145/95 mmHg. BMI is 32 kg/m2. Fasting blood glucose is 6.5 mmol/L. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial management strategy, considering the principles of culturally safe care?

A 40-year-old Aboriginal man presents for a health check. He reports feeling well but has a strong family history of diabetes and cardiovascular disease. What is the most appropriate initial screening test?

A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner complaining of severe anal pain during and after bowel movements, along with bright red blood on the toilet paper. She reports constipation and straining during defecation. Examination reveals a visible longitudinal tear in the anal mucosa at the 6 o'clock position. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial management strategy, according to Australian guidelines?

A 20-year-old female medical student arrives late, parties, and is attentive in consultations. What is the next step?

A 62-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 3-month history of progressive shortness of breath, fatigue, and a persistent dry cough. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, for which she takes methotrexate and low-dose prednisone. She denies fever, weight loss, or night sweats. On examination, she has clubbing of the fingers and fine inspiratory crackles at the lung bases. Her oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. A chest X-ray shows reticular opacities predominantly in the lower lung zones. Pulmonary function tests reveal a restrictive pattern with reduced diffusion capacity for carbon monoxide (DLCO). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension and stable angina is prescribed a new medication. He reports experiencing a persistent dry cough since starting the medication. Which drug is most likely responsible for this side effect?

An 68-year-old man attends his GP for a routine check-up. He has a history of well-controlled type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and smoked for 30 years, quitting 5 years ago. He denies any abdominal pain, back pain, or pulsatile sensation. Physical examination is unremarkable. As part of a cardiovascular risk assessment, an abdominal ultrasound is initially performed, which is inconclusive due to bowel gas. A follow-up contrast-enhanced CT scan is arranged. Considering the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 70-year-old male presents with a painful groin mass and constipation. The provided image was taken. What is the most appropriate next step?

A 35-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. He also reports a persistent cough that has recently become productive of blood-streaked sputum. He has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. He recently returned from a trip to Southeast Asia. On examination, he is febrile and has bilateral crackles in the upper lung fields. A chest X-ray shows cavitary lesions in the upper lobes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 60-year-old Aboriginal man presents for a routine check-up. He has a history of smoking and lives in a remote community. Which screening is MOST important, considering higher prevalence in this population?

A 45-year-old man presents to his GP with a lesion on his nose that he first noticed about 6 months ago. It has slowly increased in size but is not painful or itchy. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications. On examination, vital signs are stable. The image shows the appearance of the lesion. Considering the clinical presentation and the appearance of the lesion shown, what is the most appropriate initial management step?

A 55-year-old male presents to his GP with bilateral breast tenderness and swelling over six months. He denies nipple discharge or other systemic symptoms. Past medical history is unremarkable, and he takes no regular medications. Physical examination reveals the findings shown in the image. Vital signs are normal. Initial investigations including liver function tests, renal function tests, thyroid function tests, LH, FSH, prolactin, and testosterone are all within normal limits. Considering the clinical presentation, image findings, and normal initial investigations, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the evaluation of this patient?

A 70-year-old male with a history of smoking presents for a routine check-up. The image is taken. What is the recommended surveillance interval?

A 7-year-old boy is brought to the GP by his parents due to poor performance at school. Teachers report that he is inattentive, easily distracted, and frequently interrupts others. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

A 65-year-old male presents with acute LLQ pain. The provided image was obtained. What dietary advice is most appropriate upon resolution of acute symptoms?

A 64-year-old woman presents for a routine health check. She reports intermittent episodes of colicky abdominal pain over the past year, but denies any current pain, jaundice, or fever. An abdominal ultrasound is performed, the image is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 55-year-old man presents with the condition shown. He reports taking spironolactone for hypertension. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 45-year-old man presents to his general practitioner with a 3-month history of persistent cough and occasional wheezing. He is a non-smoker and works as a carpenter. He reports that his symptoms worsen at work and improve on weekends. He has no significant past medical history and is not on any medications. What is the most likely diagnosis?