general practice

A 72-year-old woman, status post mastectomy, presents with a lesion. What is the MOST appropriate initial diagnostic test?

A 55-year-old man presents to his general practitioner with a six-month history of bilateral breast tenderness and swelling. He is otherwise asymptomatic, reporting no nipple discharge, skin changes, or palpable lumps. His medical history includes well-controlled hypertension on amlodipine. He denies illicit drug use or significant alcohol intake. On examination, the finding shown in the image is noted. Given this presentation, what is the most appropriate initial diagnostic step?

A 67-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes is scheduled for elective cholecystectomy due to symptomatic gallstones. During the preoperative assessment, he mentions experiencing mild chest discomfort during exertion over the past few weeks. What is the most appropriate next step in his preoperative management?

A 68-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 12-hour history of severe, constant left groin pain. He reports a bulge in his groin that has been present for several years, which he can usually reduce himself. However, today he has been unable to push it back in, and the pain has become excruciating. He denies any fever, nausea, or vomiting. On examination, his vital signs are stable: temperature 37.0°C, heart rate 88 bpm, blood pressure 130/80 mmHg, respiratory rate 16 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. Abdominal examination is unremarkable. Palpation of the left groin reveals a firm, tender mass that is non-reducible. The overlying skin is erythematous, but there is no crepitus. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed, and an axial slice is shown. Given the clinical scenario and the imaging findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 58-year-old male presents with vague abdominal pain and unintentional weight loss. He has a history of working on a sheep farm. The provided imaging was obtained. Which of the following serological tests is MOST appropriate?

A 62-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with a six-month history of a painless swelling in his right groin. He reports that the swelling becomes more prominent when he strains or coughs and reduces when he lies down. On examination, a soft, reducible bulge is palpable in the right inguinal region. The bulge is felt to emerge medial to the inferior epigastric vessels. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management, according to current Australian guidelines?

A 62-year-old male presents with left lower quadrant pain, fever, and leukocytosis. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed, the axial view is shown. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 62-year-old postmenopausal woman presents to her general practitioner with complaints of severe hot flashes that significantly affect her quality of life. She has a history of breast cancer diagnosed three years ago, which was treated with surgery and chemotherapy. Her cancer was estrogen receptor-positive. She is currently on tamoxifen as part of her ongoing treatment. She is concerned about the use of hormone replacement therapy due to her cancer history. What is the most appropriate management option for her hot flashes?

A 68-year-old male presents with new onset constipation and abdominal pain. The provided CT was obtained. What is the MOST likely long-term complication?

A 37-year-old lady presents with a sudden right-sided facial droop, with no ear symptoms or dysphagia. She is 16 weeks pregnant. What is the likely diagnosis?

A 62-year-old man presents to his general practitioner with a 6-month history of a bulge in his groin that appears when he strains or coughs. He reports mild discomfort but no severe pain. On examination, the GP identifies a soft, reducible mass in the right groin area that appears to emerge through the superficial inguinal ring when the patient coughs. The mass reduces spontaneously when the patient lies down. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management, according to Australian guidelines?

A 68-year-old male presents for routine follow-up. He is asymptomatic. Review the image. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner complaining of a persistent, intensely itchy rash that started a few weeks ago. She reports that it began on her wrists and ankles and has now spread to her elbows and knees. She denies any new medications, travel, or changes in personal care products. On examination, you observe symmetrical, excoriated papules and plaques on her wrists, elbows, knees, and upper back. Some of the papules have small blisters. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A 62-year-old female has high blood pressure (162/97 mmHg) but is not concerned. She has white coat hypertension and declines 24-hour BP monitoring. What is the correct instruction about home blood pressure readings?

A 68-year-old male presents with right groin pain and a palpable mass. He reports constipation and mild nausea. Vitals are stable. The provided image was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 68-year-old male presents for a routine check-up. He has a history of smoking and hypertension, managed with lisinopril. He denies any abdominal pain, back pain, or lower extremity claudication. Physical exam is unremarkable. A contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen is performed, the axial view is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 48-year-old man presents with a 2-year history of progressive, tender breast enlargement causing significant distress. Initial investigations including liver function tests, renal function tests, and basic hormonal assays (LH, FSH, testosterone, oestradiol) were largely within normal limits, except for a mildly elevated oestradiol. He takes no regular medications and denies recreational drug use. He is otherwise well and his physical examination is unremarkable apart from the findings shown in the image. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings, what is the most appropriate next step in his management?

A 55-year-old woman with no palpable breast lumps presents for a routine screening mammogram. The image is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 45-year-old man presents to the general practice clinic with a 6-month history of progressive shortness of breath and a persistent dry cough. He works as a construction worker and has a 20-pack-year smoking history. On examination, he has clubbing of the fingers and fine inspiratory crackles at the lung bases. Pulmonary function tests show a restrictive pattern. A high-resolution CT scan of the chest reveals reticular opacities and honeycombing predominantly in the lower lobes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A 14-month-old child is presented to the general practitioner by their parents, who are concerned about a noticeable protrusion around the navel. They report this bulge is more prominent when the child cries or strains but easily disappears when the child is relaxed or sleeping. There are no reports of pain, discomfort, changes in bowel habits, or feeding difficulties. The child is meeting all developmental milestones and appears well. On examination, vital signs are stable and within age-appropriate ranges. The abdomen is soft and non-tender, with no distension. The finding illustrated in the accompanying image is observed. Based on this clinical presentation and examination, what is the most appropriate initial management plan?

A 55-year-old non-smoker with no known comorbidities has a consistent office BP of 155/98 mmHg. His 10-year CVD risk is calculated as low. According to Australian guidelines, what is the most appropriate initial management?

A 68-year-old male presents with abdominal distension and obstipation. An upright abdominal X-ray is performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 72-year-old man with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents for a routine health check. He is asymptomatic. A contrast-enhanced CT abdomen is performed, axial view shown. Besides optimizing medical management, what is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 75-year-old male with a history of a reducible groin hernia presents with acute abdominal pain. The provided image was taken. What is the most likely complication?

A 58-year-old male presents with concerns about breast enlargement over the past year. He denies pain or nipple discharge. He takes no medications and reports no significant past medical history. Examination reveals the findings in the image. What is the MOST appropriate initial investigation?

A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of fever, night sweats, and a non-productive cough. She has recently returned from a trip to rural Queensland. On examination, she has crackles in the right upper lung field. A chest X-ray shows a cavitary lesion in the right upper lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner complaining of a persistent, intensely itchy rash on her elbows, knees, and scalp for the past 6 months. She reports that the itching is worse at night and after hot showers. She has tried over-the-counter hydrocortisone cream without relief. On examination, the GP notes symmetrical, excoriated papules and plaques on the extensor surfaces of her elbows and knees, as well as some scaling on her scalp. The patient also mentions a history of recurrent mouth ulcers. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial investigation to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

A 62-year-old male with LLQ pain and mild fever has the CT abdomen shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 28-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of amenorrhea. She reports occasional headaches and galactorrhea. She is not on any medications and has no significant past medical history. On examination, her vital signs are normal, and there are no visual field defects. A pregnancy test is negative. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

A 58-year-old man presents with concerns about breast enlargement. Examination reveals the findings in the image. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial investigation?

An Aboriginal woman, 48 years old, attends your general practice for a routine health check. She has a history of gestational diabetes and lives in a rural community. When discussing preventative health screening, which of the following is the MOST culturally appropriate and evidence-based approach?

A 62-year-old man presents with bilateral breast enlargement, as shown. He denies pain or nipple discharge. What is the MOST likely underlying cause?

A 50-year-old man presents with a slowly growing, asymptomatic nasal lesion. He reports no trauma or fever. Examination reveals the image shown. What is the MOST likely long-term outcome if left untreated?

A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of persistent cough, night sweats, and weight loss. He has a history of smoking and works as a miner. On examination, he has decreased breath sounds and dullness to percussion over the right upper lobe. A chest X-ray shows a cavitary lesion in the right upper lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 32-year-old male presents to his general practitioner complaining of severe anal pain, especially during and after bowel movements. He also reports seeing bright red blood on the toilet paper. On examination, there is a visible tear in the anal mucosa at the 6 o'clock position. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial management strategy?

A 55-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. He has no significant past medical history. On examination, he has palpable lymphadenopathy in the cervical and axillary regions. Blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL, white blood cell count of 15,000/mm³ with a predominance of lymphocytes, and a platelet count of 150,000/mm³. A lymph node biopsy is performed, showing small lymphocytic lymphoma. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

A 68-year-old male presents to his GP complaining of a change in bowel habit over the past 6 months. He reports increasing constipation alternating with episodes of diarrhea. He also mentions unintentional weight loss of approximately 5 kg during this period. He denies any family history of bowel cancer. A colonoscopy was performed, and a representative image is shown. Assuming the lesion is confirmed as malignant, what is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 65-year-old man presents to his GP with a 2-day history of constant, dull aching pain in the left lower quadrant of his abdomen. He reports mild nausea but no vomiting. His bowel movements have been normal. He denies fever or chills. His past medical history includes well-controlled hypertension. On examination, he is afebrile (37.2°C), blood pressure is 135/85 mmHg, heart rate 72 bpm, respiratory rate 16 bpm. Abdominal examination reveals mild tenderness on deep palpation in the left iliac fossa, without guarding or rebound tenderness. Bowel sounds are normal. Digital rectal examination is unremarkable. Laboratory investigations show a white cell count of 10.5 x 10^9/L (normal range 4-11) and a C-reactive protein of 25 mg/L (normal <5). A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed (image provided). Considering the patient's clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the provided image, which of the following represents the most appropriate initial management strategy?

A 62-year-old male presents with bilateral breast enlargement for 6 months. He denies pain, discharge, or skin changes. He reports taking saw palmetto for BPH. Examination reveals the findings in the image. What is the MOST likely cause?

A 60-year-old man presents to his GP with a 3-month history of fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. He has a history of smoking and hypertension. On examination, he has palpable lymphadenopathy in the cervical and axillary regions. Blood tests reveal anemia and elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH). What is the most appropriate next step in the investigation of this patient?

A 35-year-old Aboriginal woman presents for a routine health check. She reports feeling tired lately and sometimes short of breath on exertion. She has a history of type 2 diabetes diagnosed 5 years ago, managed with metformin 500mg twice daily, and untreated hypertension. On examination, her blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg. Urinalysis shows 2+ protein. Blood tests reveal creatinine 180 µmol/L, eGFR 35 mL/min/1.73m², HbA1c 8.5%, potassium 4.2 mmol/L. Given these findings, which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step?

A 62-year-old woman presents for routine mammography. The image is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 55-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of worsening cough, weight loss, and night sweats. He has a 30-pack-year smoking history and worked in construction for 20 years. On examination, he has clubbing of the fingers and decreased breath sounds in the right lower lung field. A chest X-ray shows a right lower lobe mass. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A man presents to his GP complaining of insomnia. He has a history of addiction but is currently doing well. His girlfriend recently left him, and he states he will kill her if he sees her again. What is the most appropriate initial management step?

A 64-year-old woman reports past episodes of transient right upper quadrant pain, now resolved. She is currently asymptomatic with normal liver function tests. An abdominal ultrasound was performed as part of her evaluation. Based on the findings from this imaging study and her clinical history, what is the most appropriate management recommendation?

A 7-year-old boy is brought to the GP by his parents due to poor performance at school. Teachers report that he is inattentive, easily distracted, and frequently interrupts others. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner complaining of a persistent, intensely itchy rash that started a few weeks ago. She reports that it began on her wrists and ankles and has now spread to her elbows and knees. She denies any new medications, travel, or changes in personal care products. On examination, you observe symmetrical, intensely pruritic, violaceous, flat-topped papules and plaques on her wrists, ankles, and shins. Some of the lesions show fine, white lines on the surface. There are also a few small, similar lesions on her buccal mucosa. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?

A 55-year-old lady presents with a painless, white, lacy pattern on her buccal mucosa that has been present for several weeks. She feels well and has no significant medical history. What is the likely diagnosis?

A 32-year-old male presents to his general practitioner with persistent anal pain and bleeding on defecation for the past 8 months. He reports a cycle of pain, relief after bowel movements, followed by throbbing pain lasting several hours. Examination reveals a visible anal fissure at the 6 o'clock position, along with a skin tag. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management, according to Australian guidelines?

A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner six weeks postpartum with distressing obsessive thoughts about accidentally harming her newborn. She reports spending excessive time checking on the baby and cleaning the nursery, which interferes with her ability to rest and care for herself. She denies any intent to harm her child and feels ashamed of these thoughts. Her past medical history is unremarkable, and she has no history of psychiatric disorders. On examination, she appears anxious but is cooperative and oriented. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management strategy for her condition?