general practice

A 32-year-old male presents to his GP complaining of a new, intensely itchy rash on his wrists and ankles. On examination, there are multiple small, flat-topped, polygonal, violaceous papules. Some of the papules have fine white lines on their surface. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 55-year-old man, non-smoker, presents for a health check. BP 135/85 mmHg, total cholesterol 5.5 mmol/L, HDL 1.2 mmol/L. No personal history of CVD or diabetes. Family history of premature CVD in father. BMI 28. Based on Australian guidelines, what is the most appropriate initial management step?

A 45-year-old male presents to his GP with a lesion on his nose that has been slowly enlarging over the past six months. He reports no pain, itching, or bleeding. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications. On examination, vital signs are stable. The image shows the appearance of the lesion. Given the clinical presentation and morphology, what is the most appropriate initial step in management?

A 72-year-old male with a history of smoking and hyperlipidemia presents for a health check. He is asymptomatic. A contrast-enhanced CT abdomen is performed as part of a screening protocol. An axial view is shown. Besides optimizing medical management, what is the MOST appropriate next step?

A GP working in a hospital is observed getting into arguments with colleagues. Later, a colleague finds her disoriented and walking in the hallway. What is the most appropriate initial step?

A 67-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes is scheduled for elective cholecystectomy due to symptomatic gallstones. During the preoperative assessment, he mentions experiencing mild chest discomfort during exertion over the past few weeks. What is the most appropriate next step in his preoperative management?

A refugee family from Iraq has registered at your clinic, having settled 6 months ago. What is an important consideration for their health assessment in the Australian context?

A 1-year-old child is presented to the general practitioner by their parents who are concerned about the appearance of their child's umbilicus, as depicted in the accompanying image. The parents report the bulge is more prominent with crying but is easily reducible. The child is otherwise well, feeding normally, and has no history of pain, vomiting, or constipation. Physical examination reveals normal vital signs and a soft, non-tender abdomen. Considering the clinical presentation and the finding shown, what is the most appropriate advice to give the parents regarding initial management?

A 58-year-old male presents to your GP clinic complaining of a dragging sensation in his right groin, particularly when standing for long periods. He denies any pain, nausea, or vomiting. On examination, you note the finding in the image. Palpation reveals a soft, reducible mass. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 58-year-old man presents to his general practitioner expressing concern about the appearance of his chest, which he feels has become more prominent over the past 18 months. He denies any pain, tenderness, or nipple discharge. His medical history includes well-controlled hypertension managed with perindopril and occasional use of ibuprofen for mild osteoarthritis. He reports no significant changes in weight, appetite, or energy levels. He is a non-smoker and drinks alcohol socially, approximately 5 standard drinks per week. He works as an accountant and reports no exposure to unusual chemicals or substances. On physical examination, his vital signs are within normal limits. Abdominal examination reveals no hepatosplenomegaly. Testicular examination is normal in size and consistency, with no palpable masses. The image provided shows the appearance of his chest. Considering the patient's presentation and the visual finding, what is the most appropriate initial investigation to pursue?

A 48-year-old woman, who emigrated from Southeast Asia 5 years ago, presents to her general practitioner with a 3-month history of a slowly enlarging lump in her neck. She reports mild fatigue and has lost approximately 3 kg unintentionally over the same period. She denies cough, fever, or night sweats. Her past medical history includes well-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus managed with metformin. She is a non-smoker and drinks alcohol occasionally. On examination, she has a firm, non-tender, mobile mass measuring approximately 3x4 cm in the left anterior cervical chain. There are no other palpable lymph nodes. Chest auscultation is clear. Abdominal examination is unremarkable. Initial blood tests show a haemoglobin of 118 g/L (normal 120-150), white cell count 7.8 x 10^9/L (normal 4-11), neutrophils 4.5 x 10^9/L, lymphocytes 2.8 x 10^9/L, CRP 15 mg/L (normal <5). Liver and renal function tests are within normal limits. A neck ultrasound confirms a cluster of enlarged, hypoechoic lymph nodes in the left cervical region, the largest measuring 3.5 cm, with some central necrosis noted. A chest X-ray is clear. Given the clinical presentation and investigation findings, what is the most appropriate next diagnostic step?

A 62-year-old woman presents for routine screening mammography. She has no palpable lumps or skin changes. Her mother was diagnosed with breast cancer at age 68. The provided image is from her mammogram. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 45-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of a painful, swollen right calf. She recently returned from a long-haul flight from Europe. On examination, her right calf is warm, erythematous, and tender to touch. A D-dimer test is positive. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 35-year-old presents with colicky abdominal pain and vomiting. An X-ray is performed. What is the MOST likely finding on subsequent CT imaging?

A 37-year-old lady presents with a sudden right-sided facial droop, with no ear symptoms or dysphagia. She is 16 weeks pregnant. What is the likely diagnosis?

A 68-year-old male presents to the ED with severe groin pain and a palpable mass. He reports constipation and inability to pass flatus for 24 hours. Examination reveals tenderness and erythema. A CT scan is performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

Which of the following organs is located in the left hypochondriac region?

A 62-year-old woman presents with fatigue, constipation, and bone pain. Serum calcium is elevated. The images are obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 65-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with fatigue and pallor. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, for which she takes methotrexate and folic acid. She denies any gastrointestinal symptoms or recent changes in her diet. On examination, she appears pale, and her conjunctivae are pale as well. Her blood pressure is 120/75 mmHg, heart rate is 88 bpm, and respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute. Laboratory investigations reveal hemoglobin of 9.0 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 105 fL, and normal white blood cell and platelet counts. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her anemia?

A 68-year-old male presents with constant RUQ pain for 3 days. The image was obtained. What is the MOST likely complication if definitive management is delayed?

A 68-year-old male presents with right groin pain and a palpable mass. He reports constipation and mild nausea. Vitals are stable. The provided image was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 59-year-old male presents with a painful right groin bulge that has progressively worsened over the past week. He denies fever, chills, nausea, or vomiting. Vitals are stable. The provided image was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 45-year-old man presents to his GP with a 3-month history of gradually enlarging, painless swelling in the left side of his neck. He denies fever, night sweats, or weight loss. He emigrated from a region with high tuberculosis prevalence five years ago and has no known history of TB exposure or prior testing. On examination, there are multiple firm, non-tender, discrete lymph nodes in the left posterior triangle of the neck, the largest measuring about 3 cm. There are no other palpable nodes or organomegaly. His chest X-ray is clear. What is the most appropriate next diagnostic step?

A 35-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-month history of persistent cough, night sweats, and weight loss. He has a history of travel to Southeast Asia six months ago. On examination, he appears thin and has crackles in the upper zones of his lungs. A chest X-ray shows cavitary lesions in the right upper lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 45-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 3-month history of persistent cough and occasional wheezing. She has a history of asthma, which has been well-controlled with inhaled corticosteroids. She denies any recent respiratory infections or changes in her medication. On examination, her vital signs are normal, and there are scattered wheezes on auscultation. Spirometry shows a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio that improves significantly after bronchodilator administration. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 14-month-old child is presented to the general practitioner by their parents, who are concerned about a noticeable protrusion around the navel. They report this bulge is more prominent when the child cries or strains but easily disappears when the child is relaxed or sleeping. There are no reports of pain, discomfort, changes in bowel habits, or feeding difficulties. The child is meeting all developmental milestones and appears well. On examination, vital signs are stable and within age-appropriate ranges. The abdomen is soft and non-tender, with no distension. The finding illustrated in the accompanying image is observed. Based on this clinical presentation and examination, what is the most appropriate initial management plan?

A 72-year-old male with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents for a routine follow-up. He is asymptomatic. A contrast-enhanced CT abdomen, axial view shown, was performed as part of a screening protocol. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 45-year-old man presents to his GP with a lesion on his nose that has been present for several months and seems to be slowly enlarging. He denies pain, itching, or bleeding. He works outdoors but reports using sunscreen inconsistently. His past medical history is unremarkable, and he takes no regular medications. On examination, vital signs are stable. Regional lymph nodes are not palpable. The lesion is as shown in the image. Considering the clinical presentation, risk factors, and the appearance of the lesion, which of the following represents the most appropriate initial step in establishing a definitive diagnosis and guiding management?

A 55-year-old man presents to his GP with a persistent lesion on his nose that has been present for several months and has not changed significantly in size or appearance. He reports it is occasionally itchy but otherwise asymptomatic. His medical history is unremarkable, and vital signs are within normal limits. On examination, you observe the lesion shown in the image. Considering the appearance of this lesion, what is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this patient?

A 58-year-old male presents with left lower quadrant abdominal pain and a low-grade fever. The provided image was obtained. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-week history of fever, night sweats, and a non-productive cough. She has recently returned from a trip to rural Queensland. On examination, she has crackles in the right upper lung field. A chest X-ray shows a cavitary lesion in the right upper lobe. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 67-year-old woman presents to her GP with fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats over the past two months. She has a history of smoking and hypertension. On examination, she has palpable lymphadenopathy in the cervical and axillary regions. Blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL, elevated lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), and a peripheral blood smear showing atypical lymphocytes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A patient on warfarin presents with leg pain. INR is 3.5. Given the image, what is the MOST likely underlying cause?

A 50-year-old woman with a breast lump undergoes a mammogram, which shows microcalcifications. A core biopsy confirms ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS). What is the most appropriate next step?

A 45-year-old Aboriginal man from a remote community presents to the clinic for a routine health check. He has a history of smoking (20 pack-years) and reports drinking alcohol occasionally (3-4 standard drinks per week). He denies any chronic medical conditions. His blood pressure is 145/95 mmHg. BMI is 32 kg/m2. Fasting blood glucose is 6.5 mmol/L. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial management strategy, considering the principles of culturally safe care?

Which of the following organs is located primarily in the left upper quadrant (LUQ) of the abdomen?

A 62-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 3-month history of progressive shortness of breath, fatigue, and a persistent dry cough. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, for which she takes methotrexate and low-dose prednisone. She denies fever, weight loss, or night sweats. On examination, she has clubbing of the fingers and fine inspiratory crackles at the lung bases. Her oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. A chest X-ray shows reticular opacities predominantly in the lower lung zones. Pulmonary function tests reveal a restrictive pattern with reduced diffusion capacity for carbon monoxide (DLCO). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 32-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a 3-month history of fatigue, joint pain, and a facial rash that worsens with sun exposure. She also reports hair loss and oral ulcers. On examination, she has a malar rash, mild synovitis in her hands, and no signs of organomegaly. Laboratory tests reveal anemia, leukopenia, and positive antinuclear antibodies (ANA) with a high titer. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

A 55-year-old male presents with LLQ pain, fever, and increased WBC. A CT scan is performed, as shown. He is hemodynamically stable. What is the MOST appropriate initial management?

A patient on warfarin presents with leg pain. INR is 3.5. Given the image, what is the MOST appropriate initial pharmacological intervention?

A 68-year-old woman presents with a persistent rash following a mastectomy 5 years prior. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 70-year-old male presents with a painful groin mass and constipation. The provided image was taken. What is the most appropriate next step?

A 45-year-old man presents to his GP with a lesion on his nose that he first noticed about 6 months ago. It has slowly increased in size but is not painful or itchy. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications. On examination, vital signs are stable. The image shows the appearance of the lesion. Considering the clinical presentation and the appearance of the lesion shown, what is the most appropriate initial management step?

A 68-year-old male presents for a routine check-up. He has a history of smoking and hypertension, well-controlled with medication. He denies any abdominal pain, back pain, or lower extremity claudication. Physical exam is unremarkable. A contrast-enhanced CT scan of the abdomen is performed, the axial view is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 14-month-old child is brought to the general practitioner for a routine check-up and immunisations. The parents express mild concern about a bulge they have noticed around the child's navel, which seems more prominent when the child is crying or straining. They report it is easily pushed back in and does not appear to cause the child any pain or discomfort. The child is otherwise thriving, with normal feeding, bowel movements, and developmental progress. On physical examination, the child is alert and interactive. Vital signs are within normal limits for age. Abdominal examination reveals no distension or tenderness. The finding shown in the image is noted. Based on this clinical presentation and examination finding, what is the most appropriate initial management plan?

A 62-year-old woman presents for routine mammography. The image is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 64-year-old woman reports past episodes of transient right upper quadrant pain, now resolved. She is currently asymptomatic with normal liver function tests. An abdominal ultrasound was performed as part of her evaluation. Based on the findings from this imaging study and her clinical history, what is the most appropriate management recommendation?

A 50-year-old man presents to the general practice with a 3-month history of persistent heartburn and regurgitation, especially after meals. He has tried over-the-counter antacids with minimal relief. He denies any weight loss, dysphagia, or gastrointestinal bleeding. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 7-year-old boy is brought to the GP by his parents due to poor performance at school. Teachers report that he is inattentive, easily distracted, and frequently interrupts others. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

A 58-year-old male presents to his GP complaining of bilateral breast enlargement over the past year. He denies any pain or tenderness. He takes no medications and reports no significant past medical history. Examination reveals the findings in the image. What is the MOST appropriate initial investigation?